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AUSTIN PRECIOUS AIR
HEALTHCARE PROVIDER PRE-COURSE SELF-ASSESSMENT EXAM

SELECT THE MOST CORRECT ANSWER – WRITE THEM DOWN & E-MAIL TO RON970@MSN.COM

1. Why activate the emergency medical system first when finding an unresponsive adult victim?
    a. Sudden death always stops the heart (asystole) in the first minute.
    b. Early defibrillation is usually the best treatment for adult sudden death.
    c. More rescuers ensure quality rescue measures in all cases.
    d. Rescue measurers by a solo rescuer have no clinical value.

2. The AED (Automated External Defibrillator) is most effective when deployed
    a. After CPR has been in progress for more than ten minutes.
    b. Applied through medication pads.
    c. Preset to 360 Watt Seconds.
    d. Within three to five minutes.

3. Why is the adult CPR ratio of compression to ventilation 30:2 for team rescue?
    a. Solo rescue is of no clinical value
    b. Coronary perfusion (circulation of blood through the heart muscle) is best for adults after twenty consecutive chest compression.
    c. The numbers are arbitrary and victims just do better with two rescuers.
    d. Loneliness is devastating to solo rescuers

4. How efficient is CPR and Rescue Breathing?
    a. 20 – 30% of cardiac output and 16 – 18% oxygen exhaled into victim
    b. 30 – 40% of cardiac output and 18 – 20% oxygen exhaled into victim
    c. 40 – 50% of cardiac output and 20 – 24% oxygen exhaled into victim
    d. 50 – 60% of cardiac output and 24 – 28% oxygen exhaled into victim

5. Chest compression for adult victims should be 1.5 to 2 inches deep and should
    a. start spontaneous respirations.
    b. cause a manual carotid pulse.
    c. increase carbon dioxide levels in arterial blood.
    d. be performed with the index and middle fingers only.

6. The criteria for determining adequate rescue breathing is
    a. resumption of spontaneous pulse.
    b. the filling of the victim’s lungs.
    c. rise of the chest.
    d. the spontaneous movement of the victim’s fingers.

7. The automated external defibrillator is designed to
    a. stop the fibrillating heart.
    b. jump-start the failing heart.
    c. start the flat-line heart.
    d. slow the racing heart to make compressions more effective.

8. Which of these special situations is problematic in AED deployment?
    a. Excessive chest hair on the chest
    b. Right superior anterior thorax medication patch
    c. Right superior anterior thorax internal pacemaker
    d. Each of the above three are problematic, but can be overcome.

9. The ratio of chest compression to rescue breathing (ventilation) is
  I. 30 to 2 for solo rescue
  II. 15 to 2 for pediatric team rescue
  III. 5 to 1 for team rescue
  IV. 15 to 2 for solo rescue
    a. only I & II
    b. only II & III
    c. only I & III
    d. only II & IV

10. A child is listed as being older than twelve months old and less than
    a. 6 years old for CPR
    b. 8 years old for pediatric defibrillation pads
    c. 10 years old for adult defibrillation pads
    d. 12 years old

11. The minimum chest compression rate for adults is 100 per minute. What is the acceptable minimum child chest compression rate for solo CPR?
    a. 80
    b. 100
    c. 120
    d. 160

12. When assisting a conscious child who is choking, thrust with
    a. both hands on his breast bone straight back toward his spine.
    b. one hand only on his breast bone straight back toward his spine.
    c. one hand on his back toward his beast bone.
    d. Two hands on his abdomen toward his lungs.

13. If the child victim with apnea has a pulse of 59 with poor signs of circulation and you find him down
    a. provide immediate rescue breathing at the rate of 20 per minute
    b. perform 15 chest compressions and two rescue breaths for one minute
    c. provide CPR for two minutes and then call “9-1-1”, if you are alone with him
    d. call “9-1-1” first and then provide CPR , if you are alone with him

14. Select the correct chest compression depths
  I. 1 ½ to 2“ for adults
  II. ½ or 1/3 of the depth of the chest for children
  III. ½ or 1/3 of the depth of the chest for infants
    a. I only
    b. I & II only
    c. I, II & III are accurate
    d. III only

15. Select the correct chest compression rate during CPR
  I. 100 for adults
  II. 80 for children
  III. 60 for an infants
    a. I only
    b. I & II only
    c. !, II & III are accurate
    d. III only

16. Which of the following is most likely to have ventricular fibrillation at sudden death?
    a. adults
    b. children
    c. infants
    d. none of the age groups, as this condition is rare

17. The palm of one hand or two is used for chest compressions for which age group?
    a. adults
    b. children
    c. infants
    d. none of the age groups responds well to one handed palm compression

18. Which of the following age groups responds best to back blows for conscious victim foreign body airway obstruction rescue?
    a. adults
    b. children
    c. infants
    d. all of the above age groups respond well to back blows for choking

19. Chest thrust is indicated for which of the conscious foreign body airway obstruction rescue situations?
    a. third trimester victims
    b. obese male victims
    c. fourth day post-op abdominal surgical victims
    d. all of the above

20. Which of the following airway maneuvers is indicated for unconscious possible head or neck injury child victims?
    a. tongue-jaw lift
    b. jaw thrust
    c. tongue-jaw lift with blind finger sweep
    d. head-tilt chin lift

21. Abdominal thrusts are contraindicated in which of the following age groups?
    a. adults
    b. children
    c. infants
    d. all of the above age groups respond well to abdominal thrusts

22. Forcefully emptying the full resuscitation bag contents into an infant victim’s lungs in less than ½ second for each breath is likely to
    a. decrease the inspired oxygen to <90%
    b. cause a pneumothorax
    c. cause gastric distension
    d. any of the above are quite possible

23. The best time is use two thumb chest compressions and bag-valve-mask ventilation on infants is when
    a. there are two qualified rescuers with one at the feet and one at the head of the victim
    b. three rescuers position themselves for cricoid pressure and CPR
    c. one rescuer operates from the side of the victim
    d. all of the above are excellent for this difficult clinical situation

24. If the unconscious infant has a good pulse and adequate respirations following your first minute of resuscitation and you must move on to another victim, you should
    a. place him in the recovery position
    b. lay him in the prone position
    c. place him in the supine position
    d. sit him up

25. Under which situation should the rescuer discontinue CPR?
  I Proper help arrives and requests to take over
  II The rescuer is too exhausted to continue and no help is near
  III The victim revives and starts breathing and regains a good pulse
  IV A physician declares that the victim is dead
    a. I only
    b. II & IV only
    c. I & III only
    d. I, II, III & IV